BIOLOGY 103 EXAM 1

Sample Exam Questions

1. What characterizes a prokaryotic cell?

a. the presence of mitochondria
b. the lack of a membrane-enclosed nucleus
c. the presence of a nucleus with no DNA
d. the lack of ribosomes
e. having a cell wall without a cell membrane

2. Which of the following statements is NOT true about all living things?

a. They are made of cells or cell products.
b. They are the products of evolution.
c. Their composition includes carbon.
d. They undergo growth and development.
e. They have a cell wall as an outer boundary.

3. A common first step in the scientific method is;

a. formulation of testable hypotheses.
b. making observations.
c. formulation of a theory.
d. a search for relevant materials in the library.
e. conducting a controlled experiment.

4. Which of the following are properties of ALL life forms?

a. heritable programs in the form of DNA
b. photosynthesis
c. growth and development
d. Only a and c are correct.
e. a, b, and c are correct.

5. A cellular diameter of 40 micrometers is equivalent to

a. 0.4 millimeter.
b. 0.04 millimeter.
c. 40,000 nanometers.
d. 4,000 nanometers.
e. Both b and c are correct.

6. Which of the following would be found in an animal cell, but NOT in a bacterial cell?

a. DNA
b. cell wall
c. plasma membrane
d. cytoplasm
e. nucleus

7. If there are 12 chromosomes in an animal cell in the G1 stage of the cell cycle, what is the diploid number of chromosomes for this organism?

a. 6
b. 12
c. 24
d. 36
e. 48

8. The centromere is a region in which

a. Chromatids are attached to one another.
b. Metaphase chromosomes become aligned.
c. Chromosomes are grouped during telophase.
d. The nucleus is located prior to mitosis.
e. New spindle microtubules form.

9. If cells in the process of dividing are subjected to a drug that interferes with the formation of the spindle apparatus, at which stage will mitosis be arrested?

a. Anaphase
b. Prophase
c. Telophase
d. Metaphase
e. Interphase

10. A cell containing 92 chromatids at the start of mitosis would, at its completion, produce cells containing how many chromosomes?

a. 12
b. 16
c. 23
d. 46
e. 92

11. All of the following occur during the latter stages of mitotic prophase EXCEPT:

a. The centrioles move apart.
b. The nucleolus disintegrates.
c. The nuclear envelope disappears.
d. Chromosomes are duplicated.
e. The spindle is organized.

12. If the haploid number for a species is 3, each dividing diploid cell will have how many chromatids at metaphase?

a. 3
b. 6
c. 9
d. 12
e. 18

13. If the liver cells of an animal have 24 chromosomes, the sperm cells would have how many chromosomes?

a. 12
b. 24
c. 48
d. Twice the diploid number
e. Half the haploid number

14. Which of the following events occurs during prophase I of meiosis?

a. Reduction in chromosome number
b. Segregation of alleles of unlinked genes
c. Synapsis and crossing over
d. Duplication of chromatids
e. Segregation of alleles of linked genes

15. Which of the following is true of a species that has a chromosome number of 2 n =16?

a. The species is diploid with 32 chromosomes.
b. The species has 16 different types of chromosomes.
c. There are 16 homologous pairs.
d. During the S phase of the cell cycle there will be 32 separate chromosomes.
e. A gamete from this species has 8 chromosomes.

16. Which of the following is FALSE in comparing prophase I of meiosis and prophase of mitosis?

a. The chromosomes condense in both.
b. Homologous chromosomes pair (synapsis) in both.
c. The nuclear envelope disassembles in both.
d. A spindle forms in both.
e. Each chromosome has two chromatids in both.

17. Crossing over occurs during which phase of meiosis?

a. Prophase I
b. Anaphase I
c. Telophase I
d. Prophase II
e. Metaphase II

18. The word homologous literally means same location. How does this relate to homologous chromosomes?

a. All of the below are correct.
b. The bands resulting from staining are found in the same location.
c. The chromosomes have the same genes in the same location.
d. The chromosomes have similar genes in similar locations.
e. The chromosomes always migrate to the same cell during division.

19. The diploid chromosome number for humans is 46. How many chromatids will there be in a secondary spermatocyte?

a. 23
b. 46
c. 69
d. 92
e. 184

20. Which of the following structures is INCORRECTLY paired with its function?

a. Seminiferous tubules--add fluid containing mucus, fructose, and prostaglandin to semen
b. Scrotum--encases testes and holds them below the abdominal cavity
c. Epididymis--stores sperm
d. Prostate gland--adds alkaline (basic pH) secretions to semen
e. Ovary--secretes estrogen and progesterone

21. One function of the corpus luteum is to;

a. Nourish and protect the egg cell.
b. Produce prolactin in the alveoli.
c. Produce progesterone and estrogen.
d. Convert into a hormone-producing follicle after ovulation.
e. Stimulate ovulation.

22. Which of the following conception control methods is most effective?

a. Diaphragm
b. Condom
c. Coitus interruptus
d. Vasectomy
e. Rhythm method

23. The hormone progesterone is produced;

a. By the pituitary and acts directly on the ovary.
b. In the ovary and acts directly on the testes.
c. In the ovary and acts directly on the uterus.
d. In the pituitary and acts directly on the uterus.
e. In the uterus and acts directly on the pituitary.

24. Which substance can be detected in the urine of females and is a positive test for pregnancy?

a. Progesterone
b. Estrogen
c. Follicle-stimulating hormone
d. Human chorionic gonadotropin
e. Hypothalamus releasing factors

25. Which of the following cells produce testosterone?

a. Sperm cells
b. Hypothalamus
c. Interstitial cells
d. Anterior pituitary
e. Seminiferous tubules

26. After sperm cells are produced, they are mainly stored in the

a. Urethra.
b. Prostate.
c. Epididymis.
d. Seminal vesicles.
e. Bulbourethral gland.

27. During the menstrual cycle, what is the main source of progesterone in females?

a. Adrenal cortex
b. Anterior pituitary
c. Corpus luteum
d. Developing follicle
e. Placenta

28. Fertilization of human eggs usually takes place in the

a. Ovary.
b. Uterus.
c. Vagina.
d. Oviduct.
e. Labia minora.

29. Intrauterine devices (IUDs) probably prevent pregnancy by preventing

a. Ejaculation.
b. Fertilization.
c. The release of gonadotropins.
d. Implantation.
e. Ovulation.

30. Which of the following is the least reliable method of birth (conception) control?

a. Birth control pills
b. Intrauterine device
c. Tubal ligation
d. Rhythym Method
e. Diaphragm

31. Which of the following is mismatched?

a. mesoderm--notochord
b. endoderm--lungs
c. ectoderm--liver
d. mesoderm--bones
e. ectoderm--eye

32. The archenteron of the developing frog eventually develops into which structure?

a. reproductive organs
b. the blastocoel
c. heart and lungs
d. digestive tract
e. brain and spinal cord

33. Which of the following does NOT occur during early cleavage of an animal zygote?

a. The cell undergoes mitosis.
b. The nuclear-to-cytoplasmic ratio of the cells increases.
c. The ratio of surface area to volume of the cells increases.
d. The embryo grows significantly in mass.
e. The cell undergoes cytokinesis.

34. All of the following statements about developmental mechanisms are correct EXCEPT:

a. Cell differentiation is controlled by the serial process of determination.
b. Some groups of cells can influence the development of nearby cells by induction.
c. Morphogenetic movements rely on the extensor, contractile, and adhesive properties of cells.
d. In mosaic development, cells remain totipotent longer than do the cells in regulative development.
e. Unequal concentrations of cytoplasmic determinates in specific blastomeres can fix the developmental fates of different regions of the embryo very early.

35. What is the process called that involves the movement of cells into new relative positions in an embryo and results in the establishment of three tissue layers?

a. determination
b. cleavage
c. fertilization
d. induction
e. gastrulation

36. After gastrulation, the outer-to-inner sequence of tissue layers in a vertebrate is

a. endoderm, ectoderm, mesoderm.
b. mesoderm, endoderm, ectoderm.
c. ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm.
d. ectoderm, endoderm, mesoderm.
e. endoderm, mesoderm, ectoderm.

37. If an amphibian zygote is manipulated so that the first cleavage plane does NOT divide the gray crescent, what is the expected fate of the two daughter cells if they are separated at this point and allowed to develop as separate embryos?

a. The daughter cell with the entire gray crescent will die.
b. Both daughter cells will develop normally because amphibians are totipotent at this stage.
c. Only the daughter cell with the gray crescent will develop normally.
d. Both daughter cells with develop abnormally.
e. Both daughter cells will die immediately.

38. Which of the following is NOT an extraembryonic membrane that develops from the embryos of reptiles, birds, and mammals?

a. chorion
b. yolk sac
c. egg shell
d. amnion
e. allantois

39. In placental mammals, what is the major function of the yolk sac during development?

a. it transfers nutrients from the yolk to the embryos.
b. it differentiates into the placenta.
c. it becomes a fluid-filled sac that surrounds and protects the embryo.
d. it forms part of the digestive tract.
e. it stores waste products from the embryo until the placenta develops.

40. Thalidomide was a chemical prescribed as a sedative in the early 1960's. If taken by women in their first trimester of pregnancy, the children born had deformities of the arms and legs. What developmental process was disturbed by this drug?

a. early cleavage divisions.
b. determination of the dorsal-ventral polarity of the zygote.
c. differentiation of all mesoderm.
d. morphogenesis of limbs.
e. formation of the polar body.

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